Question: In John 2 when Jesus mother said to him, "They have no wine," Jesus speaks to her rather harshly saying, "Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet come." Can you explain his behavior and lead me to another passage where he shows love and respect towards his mother?
I am not a Catholic, but this verse does nothing to honor Mary and certainly does not elevate her.
Thank you!
Cindi
Answer: Dear Cindi,
Jesus reply to Mary seems abrupt because of the translations that we read. First, "woman" was not impolite or rude the NIV adds "Dear" just before "woman" in John 2:4, and Jesus used the term "woman" when he spoke to his mother from the cross, (see John 19:26) and when he spoke to Mary Magdalene after the Resurrection (see John 20;15).
Second, it is possible to better understand what the NIV translates as "Why do you involve me? My time has not yet come" and according to the New King James as "What does your concern have to do with me? My hour has not yet come." One scholar of Ancient Near eastern languages has suggested, "Why are you speaking to me of this need? With you, I understand it."
As Mary does not express resentment or surprise, it seems that she understood the meaning of what Jesus actually said even though our English translations have not seemed to capture or convey it. She acknowledged Jesus independence and that he would take appropriate orders (she told the servants to follow his orders).
A larger feel of this communication is that Jesus was telling Mary that this first miracle that he was about to perform was the beginning of a time of ministry in which he was following the will of his heavenly Father. Thus, one idea being expressed could have been the fact that Jesus was doing this miracle not for his earthly mother whom he always respected but because of the timing and purpose of his heavenly Father because Jesus was the lamb slain from the foundation of the world. He was beginning a ministry, and performing this first miracle which was the real reason he had come, the real reason that Mary had been found pregnant after being overshadowed by the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:35) a miracle that Mary no doubt pondered all her life (Luke 2:19) and one that she probably pondered again as Jesus performed this first miracle of his ministry.
In one sense, Jesus statement to Mary, "What do I have to do with you" or "why are you speaking to me this way you and I both agree about what needs to happen" is very much a similar thing that Mary wondered when the angel Gabriel appeared to her and announced that she would the physical mother of the Son of God "why me" in so many words. She did conclude, "I am the Lords servant may it be unto me as you have said" (Luke 1:38).
Jesus statement to Mary seems somewhat vague and ambiguous to us because it may have been a little that way in the original sense in which it was said and conveyed. Jesus was about to do something far greater than "simply" turn water into wine, far greater than simply make sure that all the guests at the wedding have enough wine, - he was declaring that he himself, God in the flesh, was the new wine bringing new life to the old covenant religion which, like the wedding, had become spiritually empty and dead for many reasons. He was the new wine the best wine that had been saved for last which men would drink of and never thirst again.
In Christ,
Greg Albrecht