Question: I have been assigned (for our Bible study group) to research the meaning
and significance of "the time of purification according to the law of Moses" in
the wake of Jesus birth. I look forward to hearing from you at your earliest
convenience.
You asked about the time of purification "according to the law of Moses"
this passage is in Luke 2:22. Some thoughts:
- This passage is but one of many that shows that our Lord lived under the old covenant
and fulfilled it in every way. For example, in vs. 21 we see that he was circumcised
according to the covenant made with Abram. And, in the verse following vs 22, we see that
Mary and Joseph were consecrating Jesus, the firstborn male, and offering a sacrifice
(Exodus 13:2, 22:29 and Leviticus 12).
All of the Old Testament was a preparation for the incarnation of the Son of God. And
he does not fulfill everything with his birth, but his life was necessary, that he might
live under the law, fulfilling it perfectly, so that the terms of the old covenant would
be met, and then in and by his atoning death on the cross opening up a new covenant
a new relationship with God (see 2 Corinthians 3:7-18).
- Under the old covenant, a woman was regarded as ceremonially unclean/impure for forty
days after the birth of a son (Lev. 12:2-8). The NIV translates Luke 2:22, "When the
time of their purification
", whereas the New King James says "her
purification". Some believe that "their" purification is actually more
correct and gives a deeper meaning. "Her" impurity was connected to the birth of
a child, and therefore, the child would also be connected with the impurity.
As God in the flesh, Jesus, the Son of God, did not sin. But as God in the flesh,
Jesus, the son of man, was human, and subject to the world of time and space we inhabit,
ultimately dying on the cross, subject to death as all humans. He took flesh upon himself,
adding flesh to his divinity, willingly having to be ceremonially cleansed with his
mother. This was but one of many acts of his voluntary humility "
made
himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being found in human likeness. And
being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death
even death on a cross" (Philippians 2:7-8).
In order to redeem us, he took our impurity on himself, he took our sin ("God made
him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of
God" 2 Corinthians 5:21).
- The old covenant called for two purification sacrifices a lamb as a burnt
offering and a pigeon as a sin offering in the case of those who were poor a pigeon
or a dove could be substituted for the lamb which is what Mary and Joseph did. Once
gain, our Savior was not born into wealth or privilege, the King of kings willingly
accepted servanthood, not only in becoming human, but in being born into the more normal
way of life humans experience. We can argue whether Mary and Joseph were middle class,
lower middle class or poor the fact remains that they were not rich and this also
was part of the plan, part of the gospel. He became poor that we might become rich, to be
given the riches of Gods grace (Luke 6:20, 2 Corinthians 8:9).
- The timing of the consecration of Jesus is interesting in some cases children
were not consecrated until later in life. Jesus was consecrated to God from the beginning
of his earthly life. He obeyed the law of God as given in the old covenant perfectly,
right from the beginning.
Some believe that this consecration in Jerusalem might have been before the visit of
the Magi (Matthew 2) as 1) Joseph and Mary would have been able to afford a lamb
after the gifts given by the Magi, 2) after they had been warned of Herods
intentions they would not have come to Jerusalem.
- Should any question arise about "Law of Moses" (vs. 22) and "Law of the
Lord" (vs.; 23, 24) see also vs. 27 "Custom of the law", vs 39,
"Law of the Lord", as well as vs. 42, "according to the custom"
all are idiomatic, referring to what we generally know as the old covenant.