Question: Hi Greg,

Is 1 John 1: talking to believers or non-believers?

Joe

Answer: Dear Joe,

The use of the word "we" in 1 John is not altogether clear – each use must be considered in its context. John says, for example, that "we" are eye-witnesses, having heard, seen, touched, looked at…Jesus Christ. What does he mean? Is this an author’s "we," a preacher’s "we," the infamous editorial, royal "we," the first person plural – referring only to himself? Or is he referring to a select group of disciples – the inner 12? Or the 70? Or is he saying that those readers who are believers will have a vicarious eye-witness experience through the faith and testimony of the original disciples/apostles?

Is he generally associating himself with all believers – the body of Christ – or is he trying to make a point that some who seem to be in the church are not among the "we," – that is – those who are original apostles (by definition, an eye-witness of the Lord)? Some who favor such a view note that John does use the first person singular "I" in chapter two (see verses 1, 7, 8, 12-14).

Generally, throughout 1 John, John seems to use the word "we" to speak of believers, the body of Christ, and when he speaks of non-believers he uses "they", "the whole world," etc.

In Christ,

Greg Albrecht