Question:  Dear Greg,

            In church this past Sunday, one of the scripture readings was from Colossians, chapter 1, and verse 24.  I don’t understand why Paul feels there was anything lacking in the suffering of Christ.  Am I guilty of misinterpreting or taking this verse out of context?

            In Him,

            Dave

Answer:  Dear Dave,

            While I was not present, did not hear the context of the Scripture reading, which is usually read in the context of a sermon that comments on it, I will attempt a brief answer.  Perhaps the best answer would be given by the pastor who gave the sermon.

            Paul is not trying to add to the cross, to the sufficiency of Christ.  His statements about the sufficiency of the atoning work on the cross is clear—in Romans and Galatians in particular.  The Greek word he uses here for afflictions is never used of the cross.  He is simply speaking of the sufferings of the body of Christ, the church, and of himself as being a member of the body of Christ.  Paul understands one of the prime purposes of the church as being to suffer (as opposed to the health and wealth advocates of our day who dominate Christian television).

            Paul is saying that we will suffer because Christ suffered, that we follow him, that we will carry our own cross, that we will suffer with Christ (Romans 8:17), and that we will share the fellowship of Christ’s sufferings (Philippians 3:10).

            This is the basic idea of this passage.  How it was presented, preached and interpreted in the service you attended I don’t know.  Again, if it was the Scripture reading, the normal practice is for the sermon to explain and illustrate that truth.

            In Christ,

            Greg Albrecht