Question:  Dear Greg,

            My question relates to a responsorial psalm we used this past Sunday in our liturgy: Psalm 138—“I will praise thee with my whole heart: before the gods will I sing praise unto thee.”

            I don’t understand why David would use the phrase “before the gods”.   Surely he was a monotheist.

            Thank you,

            Dave

Answer:  Dear Dave,

            It could be that you are not seeing the emphasis David is giving to “before the gods.”  Polytheism was a fact of life in the Old Testament culture, and the nation of Israel was unique in being monotheistic.  They were constantly tempted by other cultures and their gods (sometimes giving in), but remained (officially) monotheistic.  In the NIV, Psalm 138:1 places “gods” in quotes to note the ironic sense David is attaching to the word.

            David here is making a bold statement of fidelity to the one true God, even in the face of the presence of other gods.  The enemies of Israel are often seen as one and the same as the gods the enemies worshipped.  David is saying that he will boldly praise God even in the presence of enemies and their false gods.

            Hope this helps, Dave.

            In Christ,

            Greg Albrecht