Question:
Dear Greg,
I agree with a single exception clause to justify a divorce (even though my Bible
Please
enlighten me.
Cilla
Answer: Dear Cilla,
I
am not certain of how different your Bible is than mine, and exactly what you
have reference to. The exception
clause of Matthew 19:9 is in all reputable and accepted translations I am aware
of—the exact words used may differ slightly, and of course, the interpretation
of the Greek “porneia” varies, as we have pointed out in many other related
questions.
The
job of the church is to proclaim the sanctity of marriage—one man, one woman,
for life—that’s biblical teaching. We
may not have more than one spouse at the same time.
We may not re-marry unless we are divorced.
That is biblical teaching, and it is the job of the church to proclaim
it. However, it is the task of civil
governments to enforce marriage and divorce requirements, laws, certificates,
qualifications, etc. Such a thing is
not the job of the church.
Matthew
19:9 gives biblical rationale for divorce—which have been, at times (given the
culture and nation in question), more conservative than the civil laws--though
they are also more liberal than some civil laws in this world today, as well as
in the past. Many pastors and
Christian leaders would feel that if a Christian’s divorce falls within an
acceptable understanding of what the exception clause of Matthew 19:9 means, and
if that Christian lives in a nation that permits remarriage after divorce, such
an individual is “free” (in the view of the church, which often uses the
term “in the eyes of God” to distinguish its judgment from the purview of
the state) to remarry.
In
Christ,