Question:
I've noticed that a number of churches don't baptize infants. Why is that?
-Adam
Answer:
Infant baptism has been the majority practice of the historic, orthodox church.
However, since the Reformation this practice has been questioned by a number of denominations, especially those that would be termed "evangelical". The most critical objection in favor of what is termed "believers baptism" is that the church is a company of believers who are the body of Christ. Since this implies the ability, maturity to exercise faith and commitment, it is reasoned that some maturity would be called for.
The counter argument is that the adults, usually parents, often grandparents --as well as the entire congregation speaks for the infant, and commits on his/her behalf -- and, in fact, makes a commitment to be responsible for the infant, that they are trained in the faith.
Those who favor infant baptism often note the parallel in the Old Covenant to the Jewish rite of circumcision, the covenant God initially made with Abram. However, those who favor believers baptism would note that the rite of circumcision is now obsolete, as the New Covenant people of God are of all races, backgrounds, culture, language, -- and in the case of circumcision, of both genders.
Those who favor infant baptism note that the New Testament notes that entire households were baptized. The bottom line is that the New Testament neither commands infants to be baptized nor does it explicitly prohibit them. It does command baptism, and for Christians this is not an option.But the practice and teaching of infant baptism vs. believers baptism is not a core doctrine of Christianity -- Christians may differ, and should do so in grace, not dividing over what is at best a peripheral practice about how (this is also an issue for many Christians, sprinkling, christening, vs. immersion) and when to baptize.
I hope this helps you with your question
In Christ,
Greg Albrecht
Follow Up Question:
Greg, you wrote:
"The bottom line is that the New Testament neither commands infants to be baptized nor does it explicitly prohibit them. It does command baptism, and for Christians this is not an option."
Thanks for your reply, but I have a question on this statement. If the New Testament doesn't command infants to be baptized then what do you say Jesus means by "baptising all nations?" (Matthew 28:19,20)
Follow Up Answer:
Those who favor believers' baptism would interpret that passage as believers' baptism --perhaps in the same way that those not cognitively or emotionally mature, due to any number of conditions, would not be included.
Thank you for your question,
Greg