Question:

Is it proper or scriptural to say, "I rebuke you in the name of Jesus" or the "Lord rebuke you"? I was corrected for using the latter.

God bless,

Frank

Answer:

Dear Frank -- I presume that you have reference to Jude 9, which attributes this statement to Michael, the archangel. Some believe that this term is almost an incantation, as if the exact words themselves have magical powers. They seem to have a superstitious approach to this text in that regard. It is not wrong to rebuke ungodly acts, and we do that by our behavior, and by our assistance to those in need. But the words themselves, in some exact and formulaic way do not have any special power. We are to rebuke evil deeds, sinful behavior -- by first and foremost walking with the Lord ourselves. Second, we are to allow the Lord Jesus Christ to live in us, and use our example as salt and light in the midst of a perverted and corrupt world. If we faithfully do both of those things, we still don't have to use those words directed at another human being.

However, there may be a time when we are confronted with a suggestion that we sin. At such a time we may have to answer another -- but even at such a time to use archaic sounding language which sounds more like an incantation to those who are not Christians will not impress them with the salvation that is only available in Jesus Christ -- rather it will lead them to think that Christianity is not based in reality, but in fear, superstition, and illogical and irrelevant rituals.

Hope this helps.

In Christ,

Greg Albrecht